For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son,
that whoever believes
him should not perish but have eternal life.
For God so loved the world that He gave His only begotten Son,
that everyone believing into Him should not perish,
have everlasting life.
Are focus in this brief study well be on the Greek word (eis), it is translated as in by most Bible versions,
although the word in with a proper understanding will work in this sentence the Greek word (eis) is properly translated into and gives a better understanding of the verse. This word is meant to show or describe that the preceding action is performed in such a way as to put you somewhere. In other words it would mean, in our subject verse, that someone would believe and act upon that belief so as to enter into Christ where their is eternal life. In other words I could say that you "walked into, or in the house", the in or into (eis) in this sentence has the same meaning as in our verse, just because you walked doesn't necessarily mean you walked into the house, just because you believe, doesn't necessarily mean that you believed, or are believing in or into Christ.
Many men with itching ears search the scripture to find verses that they can easily pervert,
they do this to there own destruction,
this is one such verse.
Another one of many such verses that are distorted the same way is;
1 John 5:1
Whosoever believeth that Jesus is the Christ is born of God:
Now hears a verse that links eternal life to belief alone and there are others,
this leads the true believer to search the scripture
to find the difference between this true, faithful and saving belief
and the many believers who are shown in scripture we'll be eternally condemned.
The Difference is clear,
we must believe into Christ,
we must remain in him,
until the end.
Men actually use these verses to legitimize there sinful and disobedient lifestyle.
Claiming all they need to do is believe.
The fact is that the true believer is given the Spirit of Truth
which manifest in him in uncontrollable desire to know, love and obey Gods word,
this is what puts him into Christ,
keeps him safe from the evil one
(who also believes),
brings continued sanctification
and assures him of salvation.
These verses below, and there are many, many others,
listed in the same book of 1 John before and immediately after the above verse,
they consistently avoid!
1 John 2:3
We know that we have come to know him
if we obey his commands.
The man who says, "I know him,"
but does not do what he commands is a liar,
and the truth is not in him.
1 John 3:9
Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin;
for his seed remaineth in him:
and he cannot sin,
because he is born of God.
1 John 5:18
We know that whosoever is born of God sinneth not;
but he that is begotten of God keepeth himself,
and that wicked one
toucheth him not.
Back to our subject verse.
You can see from the below definition that in isn't even listed in the translated words.
And it is also important to note that there is a Greek word used in the Bible that translates directly to in, it is (en), and it could have been used by the writer, this further illustrates that into is a more accurate translation. The reason I believe in is used is that none of the correctly translated words make proper since in the English sentence, if understood correctly in we'll work fine, problem is that it makes this verse easily misused.
Greek for 1519
TDNT - 2:420,211
a primary preposition
Part of Speech
Outline of Biblical Uage
1) into, unto, to, towards, for, among
to the inside of
1 expressing movement or action
with the result
that someone or something becomes enclosed or surrounded by something else:
2 expressing movement or action
with the result that someone or something makes physical contact with something else:
he crashed into a parked car.
1 : —
used as a function word to indicate entry,
introduction, insertion, superposition, or inclusion <came into the house> <enter into an alliance>
Meaning of "eis" in Acts 2:38
Some, in wishing to deny the importance and purpose of baptism, claim that the original Greek word eis in Acts 2:38 means "be baptized because you already have remission of sins." But such a translation and interpretation cannot be supported with a responsible study of Scripture and the Greek language.
In Acts 2:38 (KJV), Peter said, "Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ FOR (Greek eis) the remission of sins." According to one source, eis is translated in this way in the King James Version:
Into – 571 times
To -- 282 times
Unto -- 208 times
In -- 131 times
For -- 91 times
On -- 57 times
Toward -- 32 times
That -- 30 times
Against -- 25 times
Upon -- 25 times
At -- 20 times
Among -- 16 times
Concerning -- 5 times
“because of” – 0 times
According to Thayer's lexigon, eis means "entrance into, or direction and limit: into, to, towards, for, among." The majority of the words listed above are consistent with that meaning. Many wish to believe/teach that Peter said repent and be baptized "because of" the remission of sins. There is, however, not a single instance of the Greek word eis in the KJV ever translated as "because of." Nor is there apparently any version of the Bible that translates Acts 2:38, "Repent, and be baptized . . . because of the remission of sins." <There are several versions though, that translate the phrase “for the forgiveness of sins” as “so that your sins will be forgiven”>
To better understand the meaning, consider the entire phrase "for the remission of sins." In the original Greek it reads: eis aphesin ton hamartion humon. That phrase is also found in Mark 1:4 and Luke 3:3 where John preached "the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins." Did John preach and baptize because they already had forgiveness, or was it leading up to that time of forgiveness through Christ?
The real test, though, is found in Matthew 26:28. There Jesus said His blood "is shed for many for the remission of sins." What did He mean by that? Would He shed His blood because people already had forgiveness or in order that they might obtain it?
If Jesus used the word/phrase to mean "in order to
receive remission of sins," then is it not reasonable to conclude that Peter, by
inspiration of the Spirit sent by Jesus, would mean the exact same thing
when he used the exact same phrase? Surely Peter's command to be baptized
in Acts 2:38 means what it clearly says: baptism is for/in order to obtain
the forgiveness of sins.